This came up recently in gameplay, so its not a hypothetical.
Scenario 1
A is in melee with 1. 1 has a melee range of 2". 2,3,4 are within 1's melee.
B has LOS with A and 1, but not 2,3,4. B targets 1 with a ranged attack.
Does firing into melee dictate that 2,3,4 are now valid targets despite not being in LOS with B? This greatly increases the chances that you'll hit an enemy instead of yourself, despite 3 of the targets not being in LOS. I know there are penalties involved, but for a ranged unit who might not have any other action, it might not be a bad play.
Scenario 2
A is in melee with 1.
B has LOS with A, but not 1.
Can B target A with a ranged attack for a chance to hit 1, who would not otherwise be a valid target because of lack of LOS?
Both of these scenarios seem to be in keeping with the rules for firing into melee, but I want to make sure I am not missing something.
Question
Cadilon
This came up recently in gameplay, so its not a hypothetical.
Scenario 1
A is in melee with 1. 1 has a melee range of 2". 2,3,4 are within 1's melee.
B has LOS with A and 1, but not 2,3,4. B targets 1 with a ranged attack.
Does firing into melee dictate that 2,3,4 are now valid targets despite not being in LOS with B? This greatly increases the chances that you'll hit an enemy instead of yourself, despite 3 of the targets not being in LOS. I know there are penalties involved, but for a ranged unit who might not have any other action, it might not be a bad play.
Scenario 2
A is in melee with 1.
B has LOS with A, but not 1.
Can B target A with a ranged attack for a chance to hit 1, who would not otherwise be a valid target because of lack of LOS?
Both of these scenarios seem to be in keeping with the rules for firing into melee, but I want to make sure I am not missing something.
Thanks.
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