Last days I've been reading rulebook and FAQ last says and saw one confusing thing.
Rulebook page 25 says:
Quote
Opposed Duel Sequence
Declare Soulstone Use
Flip Fate Card and Add Stat
Choose to Cheat Fate
Declare one Trigger
Determine Success
Rulebook page 26 says:
Quote
After succeeding: These effects are resolved after Step 5, and only if the model with this Trigger wins the duel.
So as I understand if I have a Attack Action which deal 2/3/4 damage and have "After succeeding" trigger I have to declare "After succeeding" on step 4 then deal damage on step 5 and only after that all to apply the trigger's effect. Correct?
But FAQ says:
Quote
114) The Dreamer’s Safe In My Bed Trigger allows a Nightmare to suffer the effects of an Attack Action as if it had been the target. Does the Nightmare need to be a valid target of the Attack? Does the Dreamer still suffer the effects of the Attack? How does this work with Attack Triggers that cause more Actions such as Onslaught? The Dreamer will not suffer the effects as the Nightmare is doing so instead. The Nightmare does not need to be a valid target of the Attack. If the Attack Triggers additional Attacks which must be made “against the same target” (such as with Onslaught) then the Nightmare will be the target of those Attacks. If the Nightmare is not a valid target for additional Attacks, they may not be made.
And this mean that Dreamer applies his trigger's effect on step 4.
Why?!? Why on step 4 instead after step 5 as usual?
Question
icebreaker
Hey everyone,
Last days I've been reading rulebook and FAQ last says and saw one confusing thing.
Rulebook page 25 says:
Rulebook page 26 says:
So as I understand if I have a Attack Action which deal 2/3/4 damage and have "After succeeding" trigger I have to declare "After succeeding" on step 4 then deal damage on step 5 and only after that all to apply the trigger's effect. Correct?
But FAQ says:
And this mean that Dreamer applies his trigger's effect on step 4.
Why?!? Why on step 4 instead after step 5 as usual?
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