Blast question

[Isambard Brunel]

Hello all,

A situation came up in a game I was watching recently, and I wanted to see if this board came to the same conclusions the two players did. Consider the example that I've posted. It isn't exactly what happened on the tabletop, but rather a simplified scenario for our purposes. I'll be intentionally vague about what armies were used in order to avoid any rules posting. All stats I give are therefore hypothetical.

Model B has a weapon with a 10" range and a damage spread of 1/4/5. The 4 and 5 both generate 2 blasts. The Cb value for this weapon is 4. Model A, a friendly model, is Df 3 and has armor 1. It also cannot take damage from blasts, as per a special trait. All of the X models are enemy models to A and B. They are 6 wound models, for imagination's sake.

Model B activates and fires its weapon at A. As per the targeting rules, this looks to be legal. They flip. Model B flips a 4, and model A flips a 3. B wins by 2. Since A is losing, it is allowed to cheat, and the owner plays a 2. Model A is at a total of 5. B can now cheat, and it does with a 12. Model B now wins by 11, generating a positive flip. A weak and a severe are flipped for damage.

Now, as per the blast rules, two blasts are placed touching the front of A's base and projected over all four X models. A, being immune to blasts, takes no damage. Every X model touched takes 4 damage, one step lower than the target.

Now, B may fire again, possibly killing four six-wound models in two shots.

This seems rather powerful. Is it legal?

Thanks for your time and imagination!

[Keltheos]

When a model is immune to blasts that's the damage from the blast. The initial damage in the spread, the 5 points, would be applied to model A and then the blast damage (4 moderate) to the 4 other models.

So:

Yes, it's legal to range the blast that way. HOWEVER, A would have suffered the initial 5 damage to make it work.

[Fetid Strumpet]

First, is any model X in melee range of Model A, either it's own, or Model A?

If yes, then complications ensue.

If No, then yes what you have posted is legal, but incomplete. Model A still takes dmg, it just doesn't take Blast damage. Assuming model A is a Freikorpsman of some sort the shot that blasted off onto the X models would do 4 dmg to Model A, and as it was the original target of the action, and wasn't going to take additional blast dmg anyway as blasts never deal additional dmg to the original target.

Dang, Ninja'd. By a Marshall no less.

[Isambard Brunel]

Ah-hah! I knew it was too good to be completely true. I had been wondering if there was a distinction between blast damage and that initial hit. Thanks!

Also, taking the example above, if Model B had only flipped moderate damage, what would have happened?

A. Two blasts are generated at one less severity, so 1 damage per blast.

Or

B. Since the severity below moderate had no blasts, none are generated.

[Fetid Strumpet]

A.

[Keltheos]

Strumpet did cover the bit I ignored as you didn't indicate whether A was/was not engaged with X. That would be a factor as well.

For your follow up: A. Would generate the two blasts for 1 damage.

Weak damage never generates blasts, hence no blasts on the weak damage entries.

[Isambard Brunel]

Talk about some prompt answers. Thanks everyone!